Say we have two languages L1 and L2, is the following condition below considered false?
(L1L2)* = L1*L2*
I'm assuming this because say:
Leftside of condition:
L1 = {a,b}
L2 = {c,d}
C = L1.L2
C = {ac,ad,bc,bd}
C* = {empty, 'acad','adbc','bdac',...}
Rightside of condition
L1 = {a,b}
L2 = {c,d}
L1* = {a,b,aa,ab,ba,bb,...}
L2* = {c,d,cc,cd,dc,dd,...}
C = L1*.L2*
C therefore can't have any element c within that has a combination such as "adbc" as can be demonstrated on the Leftside of the argument, therefore the original argument is false.
Is this approach valid?
I can't follow your proof, but if L1={a}
and L2={b}
, then (L1L2)*
contains abab
, and L1*L2*
doesn't. So they're not equal.