The problem is :
Show that ¬ p → (q → r) and q → (p v r) are logically equivalent.
I'm having trouble proving this with the use of Logical Identities. Any help is much appreciated.
See this can be proved like this.
~p --> (q --> r)
~~p v (q --> r) -- (p -->q = ~p v q) --Implication law
p v (~q v r) -- (~ (~p) = p ) -- Double negation law
~q v (p v r) -- (P ∨ (Q ∨ R) ≡ (P ∨ Q) ∨ R) -- associativity Law
q --> (p v r) -- Implication law